“…(5) reveals that the essence of the CIP-based approach to solving the forward bias puzzle, abstracting from transaction costs (which are quite miniscule in practice), is to regress s t+1 on (f t − s t ) and [ s t+1 − (f t − s t )]. Thus, it is no wonder that the latter term explains the variation not explained by the former and that, overall, Pippenger's (2011) reported R 2 coefficients are all extremely close to one. Moreover, since Var t s t+1 ≈ Var t ( s t+1 + e t+1 ), the claim that the CIP-based approach also solves the closely related variance puzzle is also unfounded.…”