There seem to be two ways of supposing a proposition: supposing "indicatively" that Shakespeare didn't write Hamlet, it is likely that someone else did; supposing "subjunctively" that Shakespeare hadn't written Hamlet, it is likely that nobody would have written the play. Let P (B//A) be the probability of B on the subjunctive supposition that A. Is P (B//A) equal to the probability of the corresponding counterfactual, A B? I review recent triviality arguments against this hypothesis and argue that they do not succeed. On the other hand, I argue that even if we can equate P (B//A) with P (A B), we still need an account of how subjunctive conditional probabilities are related to unconditional probabilities. The triviality arguments reveal that the connection is not as straightforward as one might have hoped.